In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term 2pq represents the frequency of the
Red blood cells contain ______ chromosomes. A. 46 B. 23 C. *0 D. 92 E. 69 2. The muscle cell contains ______ chromosomes. A. *46; B. 23; C. 0; D. 92; E.69 3. The egg cell contains ______ chromosomes. A. 46; B. 23; C. 0; D. 92; E.69 4. Mitosis is divided into each of the following phases, except ______ . A. *interphase B. prophase C. cytokinesis D.Anaphase E.metaphase 5. Cytokinesis is the process in which the ____________ is divided and two separate cells are formed. *A. cytoplasm; B. nucleus; C. membrane; D.Nucleolus E.mitochondria 6. In a human cell, ___ chromosomes in ___ pairs are aligned at the equatorial plate. *A. 46, 23; B. 23, 46; C. 92, 46; D.69, 24 E.46, 22 7. As a cell enters meiosis I, the cell contains __________ chromosomes, or ______ chromatids. A. *46, 92 B. 23, 46 C. 46, 23 D. 92, 46 E. 69, 24 8. Each diploid human cell contains ______ pairs of homologous chromosomes. A. 46 B. *23 C. 96 D. 36 E. 69 9. A reproductive cell, containing 46 chromosomes will yield ______ cells with ______ chromosomes each after meiosis. A. 2, 23 B. 4, 46 C. *4, 23 D. 8, 23 E. 23, 45 10. Meiosis results in _____ A. 2 haploid daughter cells B. *4 haploid daughter cells C. 4 diploid daughter cells D. 2 diploid daughter cells E. 3 diploid daughter cells 11. Which of the following cells undergo meiosis? A. *sperm cells B. liver cells C. unicellular organisms D. all of these E. nerve cells 12. Crossing-over occurs during: A. anaphase 1 B. metaphase 1 C. *prophase 1 D. prophase 2 E. metaphase 2 13. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces: A. Zygotes B. Chromosomes C. DNA D. *Gametes E. nerve cells 14. Which of the following distinguishes prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of mitosis? A. *homologous chromosomes pair up B. spindle forms C. nuclear membrane breaks down D. chromosomes become visible E. chromosomes become invisible 15. A cell with a diploid number of 24 undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes are in each daughter cell? A. 6 B. *12 C. 24 D. 48 E. 18 16. Which of the following is a possible abbreviation for a genotype? A. BC B. *Pp C. Ty D. fg E. AS 17. Which of the following pairs are not correct? A. *kk = hybrid B. hybrid = heterozygous C. heterozygous = Hh D. homozygous = RR E. homozygous = aa 18. The genes present in an organism represent the organism's __________. A. *genotype B. phenotype C. physical traits D. Physical appearance E. specification 19. Which choice represents a possible pair of alleles? A. k & t B. K & T C. *K & k D. K & t E. k & T 20. How many alleles for one trait are normally found in the genotype of an organism? A. 1 B. *2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 21. Which statement is not true? A. genotype determines phenotype B. *phenotype determines genotype C. a phenotype is the physical appearance of a trait in an organism D. alleles are different forms of the same gene E. hybrid = heterozygous 22. An allele is: A. another word for a gene B. a homozygous genotype C. a heterozygous genotype D. *one of several possible forms of a gene E. one of several possible forms of a phenotype 23. Phenotype refers to the ______________________ of an individual. A. genetic makeup B. *actual physical appearance C. recessive alleles D. phenenetic makeup E. dominant alleles 24. Genes are said to be as _______ genes when these are located on separate gene loci, which inter act to produce a particular or phenotypic trait. A. pleiotropic B. dominant C. complementary D. *codominant E. recessive 25. _______ (1904) worked on Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet pea) to explain the phenomenon of complementary interaction factors. A. Cuenot B. *Bateson and Punnett C. Emerson D. Morgan and Bridges E. Sturtevant and Muller 26. ___________ is the phenomenon in which the same gene has more than two different alleles (in normal Mendelian inheritance, the gene only has two alleles). A. *multiple alleles B. epistasis C. pleiotropic effect D. codominance E. supplementary genes 27. A typical example of multiple alleles is the inheritance of ___________. A. sickle-cell disease B. the ABO blood group system C. cystic fibrosis D. pea flower colour E. *corn seed colour 28. The three main types of gene interaction are: _______________________. A. complementary genes, epistasis and codominance B. *complementary genes, epistasis and polygenic inheritance C. complementary genes, epistasis and pleiotropic effects D. supplementary and complementary genes, epistasis E. dominant and recessive epistasis and polygenic inheritance 29. The sex chromosomes of a human female are _____. A. *XX B. XY C. YY D. YO E. XXY 30. Male and female Drosophila flies have _____. A. the same number of chromosomes as humans B. one pair of sex chromosomes C. the same number of sex chromosomes as humans D. *one pair of sex chromosomes and the same number of sex chromosomes as humans E. two pair of sex chromosomes 31. The allele for Drosophila eye color ____. A. is on the Y chromosome B. *is on the X chromosome C. is on one of its autosomes D.is on the Y and X chromosomes E.is on two of its autosomes 32. Which of the following best describes a Drosophila with the genotype XRXr assuming XR = red eyes and Xr = white eyes? A. female with red eyes B. female that is a carrier C. male with white eyes D. *female with red eyes and female that is a carrier E. male that is a carrier 33. Assuming XR = red eyes and Xr = white eye, what is the phenotype of an individual with the genotype XrY? A. male with red eyes B. *male with white eyes C. female with red eyes D. female with white eyes E. intersex with red eyes 34. An individual with the genotype XrY will produce which of the following gametes? A. XR B. Xr C. Y D. *Xr and Y E. XR and Y 35. Carriers can also be described as _____. A. homozygous recessive B. homozygous dominant C. *heterozygous D. Genotypes E. phenotypes 36. There is a direct relationship between the frequency of crossing-over and the percentage of recombinant __________. A. gametes B. *phenotypes C. genotypes D. Heterozygous E. homozygous 37. The chromosomes can be mapped by determining the frequency of recombinant _____ that occurs due to the process of crossing over. A. gametes B. *phenotypes C. genotypes D. Heterozygous E. homozygous 38. If crossing over occurs between two linked alleles of interest, a dihybrid produces _____ type(s) of gamete(s). A. one B. two C. three D. *four E. five 39. When chromosomes are mapped by examining recombinant phenotypes, it is assumed that 1% of crossing over equals _____ map unit(s). A. *one B. two C. five D. ten E. four 40. When a cross involving mutant genes b and e is done 3% recombinants are observed. When a cross involving mutant genes t and e is done 22% recombinants are observed. When a cross involving mutant genes b and t is done 19% recombinants are observed. What is the correct order of the genes on the chromosome? A. *t, b, e B. b, t, e C. t, e, b D. e t t E. e t b 41. The progeny of the cross AaBb x aabb are: AaBb = 45; Aabb = 5; aaBb = 5; aabb = 45. These two gene are: On different chromosome pairs A. 5 cM apart B. *10 cM apart C. 45 cM apart D. 90 cM apart E. 15 cM apart 42. Despite their radical differences in function, all proteins are made of the same basic constituents: A. *the amino acids; B. the nucleic acid; C. the nucleotide; D. the carbohydrates E. the glucose 43. The amino end of the amino acid is 1.__________________, and the carboxyl end is 2.____________________________. A. 1. neutrally, 2. negatively charged; B. *1. positively charged, 2. neutrally; C. 1. positively charged, 2. negatively charged; D. 1. negatively charged, 2. positively charged. E. 1. Neutrally charged, 2. positively charged. 44. The sequence of amino acid residues that make up a protein is called the protein’s _____________________. A. *primary structure; B. secondary structure; C. tertiary structure; D. quaternary structure. E. spatial structure 45. One well known fact about DNA is that it forms a double helix; that is, two helical (spiral-shaped) strands of 1._________________, running in opposite directions, held together by 2._____________________. A. *1. the polypeptide, 2. hydrogen bonds; B. 1. hydrogen bonds, 2. the polypeptide; C. 1. amino acid, 2. phosphate groups; D. 1. the polypeptide, 2. peptide bonds. E. the polypeptide, 2. phosphate bonds 46. The nucleotides are linked to each other in the polymer bу ______________. A. hydrogen bonds; B. peptide bonds; C. *phosphodiester bonds; D. base molecules. E. ionically bonds 47. The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________ A. deoxyribose, ribose B. *ribose, deoxyribose C. ribose, phosphate D. ribose, uracil E. glucose, deoxyribose 48. Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base A. *covalently bonded to a sugar B. ionically bonded to a sugar C. hydrogen bonded to a sugar D. none of the above E. phosphodiestery bonded to a sugar 49. Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4? A. *Cytosine B. Thymine C. Uracil D. Adenine E. guanine 50. A nucleotide consists of A. *a sugar, a base and a phosphate B. a sugar and a phosphate C. paired bases D. a sugar, a base and three phosphates E. a sugar and paired bases 51. A five carbon sugar lacking a hydrogen at the number 2 carbon is found in A. *DNA B. RNA C. mRNA D. rDNA E. tRNA 52. A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is A. *Adenine B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. Guanine E. Uracil 53. Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA? A. *Uracil B. Deoxyribose C. Phosphate D. Adenine E. Guanine 54. Which of the following is a purine? A. Cytosine B. *Adenine C. Thymine D. Uracil E. ribosome. 55. The anticodon is a structure on A. mRNA. B. *tRNA. C. ribosome. D. rRNA. E.DNA 56. In RNA, uracil pairs with A. *Adenine B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. Guanine E. ribosome. 57. Which of the following is the smallest of the RNAs? A. Messenger RNA B. *Transfer RNAs C. Ribosomal RNAs D. All of these E. Pro-mRNA 58. What is the function of messenger RNA? A. It carries amino acids B. It is a component of the ribosomes C. *It is a direct copy of a gene D. It is the genetic material of some organisms E. It is a direct copy of amino acids 59. Which is the largest among the followings? A. *Nucleotide B. Nitrogenous base C. Phosphate D. Carbon E. oxygen 60. In DNA double helix, the two DNA chains are held together by A. covalent bonds between the pair of bases B. *hydrogen bonds between the pair of bases C. ionic bonds between the pair of bases D. none of the above E. Phosphodiester bonds between the pair of bases 61. The 5' and 3' numbers are related to the A. length of the DNA strand B. *carbon number in sugar C. the number of phosphates D. the base pair rule E. the number of nitrogenous bases 62. In DNA, there are A. five bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine, tryptophan and cytosine B. *four bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine C. three bases known as adenine, guanine and cytosine D. only two bases known as adenine and cytosine E. four bases known as adenine, guanine, uracil and cytosine 63. In DNA, guanine pairs with A. Adenine B. *Cytosine C. Thymine D. Uracil E.Nitrogenous base 64. Which of the following is incorrect? A. In DNA double helix, two strands of the DNA are bound with each other with the bases B. *Adenine always pairs with thymine C. Guanine always pairs with the cytosine D. None of the above E. Cytosine always pairs with guanin 65. Each non-overlapping triplet of 1._____, called 2._____, corresponds to a particular 3.______. A. 1. nucleotides, 2. a genome, 3. amino acid; B. 1. nucleotides, 2. a diploid, 3. amino acid; C. 1. amino acid, 2. a codon, 3. nucleotides; D. *1. nucleotides, 2. a codon, 3. amino acid. E. 1. nucleotides, 2. a amino acid, 3. codon. 66. 1__________ is translated using a slightly different code, which is more degenerate (has less information in the third nucleotide) than 2.__________. A. *1. Mitochondrial DNA, 2. the standard code; B. 1. Ribosomal DNA, 2. the standard code; C. 1. Eukaryotic DNA, 2. the code of Eukaryotes; D. 1. Mitochondrial RNA, 2. the standard code. E. 1. Prokaryotic DNA, 2. the code of Eukaryotes; 67. DNA sequences coding for a single protein in most eucaryotes have noncoding sequences, called _____________, inserted into them. A. hydrogen bonds; B. exons; C. *introns; D. complementary strands. E. Mitochondrial DNA 68. Which one statement is true about the genetic code? A. The genetic code table lists tRNA sequences. B. Every protein starts with a Pro amino acid. C. Each amino acid is encoded by exactly one codon. D. *Only three codons have no matching anticodons. E. The genetic code table lists anticodon sequences. 69. How many different codons are possible? A. 3 B. 20 C. *64 D. An infinite number E. 12 70. The genetic code is A. universal B. *universal except for rare exceptions in mitochondria and some protozoa C. species-specific D. kingdom-specific E. nonuniversal 71. Codon that specify the amino acids often differs in the A. first base B. second base C. *third base D. none of these E. fourth base 72. The codons which do not specify an amino acid are called A. initiation code B. *termination code C. propagation code D. none of these E. second code 73. The sequence of one strand of DNA is: 5' ATTGCCA 3', what is the sequence of the other strand? A. 5' TAACGGT 3' B. *5' TGGCAAT 3' C. 5' ATTGCCA 3' D. 5' UAAGCCU 3' E. 3' UAAGCCU 3' 74. In prokaryotes, AUG encodes A. Methionine B. *N-formyl methionine C. a stop codon D. alanine E. termination code 75. How many amino acids will be encoded by 5' GAU GGU UGA UGU 3' sequence? A. One B. Two C. Three D. *Four E. Five 76. In protein synthesis in prokaryotes A. *the initiating amino acid is N- formyl methionine B. the initiating amino acid is methionine C. the initiating amino acid is phenyl alanine D. none of the above F. the initiating amino acid is alanine 77. AUG codes for methionine act as a A. *initiation code B. elongation code C. termination code D. propagation code E. universal code 78. Which of the following is NOT a way in which DNA is different from RNA? A. The nitrogenous bases. B. The number of strands. C. The kind of sugar in the sugar-phosphate backbone. D. *All of the above are ways in which they differ. E.Uracil bases 79. __________ have anticodons A. mRNAs B. Ribosomes C. *tRNAs D. RNA polymerases E. amino acids 80 . What mRNA sequence would the DNA sequence AGTCCG code for? A. *UCAGGC B. TCAGGC C. Ile Ser D. ACAUUA E. Ser Gly 81. What amino acid sequence would the DNA sequence TAAAGT code for? (genetic code is on back page) A. AUUUCA B. ATTTCA C. *Ile Ser D. ACAUUA E. Met Pro 82. The genetic code is an inventory of which ___ specify(ies) which _______. A. *3 mRNA bases … amino acid B. mRNA base … amino acid C. amino acids … proteins D. 3 DNA bases … 3 mRNA bases E.3 DNA bases … proteins 83. A human being has _____ autosomes and ______ sex chromosomes A) 23, 1 B) *22 pairs, 1 pair C) 23, 23 D) 2, 2 E. 1, 22 84. A section of chromosomes that codes for a trait can be called a(n): A) nucleotide B) base-pair C) *gene D) nucleus E. diploid 85. Somatic cells of a human have ____ chromosomes and are called ____ A) 10, haploid B) 92, diploid C) 23, haploid D) *46, diploid E. 23, diploid 86. A person who receives an extra chromosome, could have: A) Heightened intelligence B) *Down Syndrome C) Red eyes D) Polygenic traits E. karyotype 87. Each chromosome consists of two identical: A) genes B) nuclei C) *chromatids D) bases E. codes 88. If a person receives an X and a Y chromosome, that person is: A) female B) *male C) red eyed D) mentally challenged E. blue eyed 89. A picture of a person's chromosomes is called a(n): A) *karyotype B) syndrome C) chromatin D) fingerprint E. chromatid 90. The two types of cells found in humans include gametes (sperm and eggs) and somatic cells (the cells found in body tissues such as muscle, skin etc.). The number of chromosomes in human gametes and somatic cells in that order are: A) *23, 46 B) 23, 23 C) 46, 46 D) 69, 69 E. 70, 23 91. Members of the same species which are capable of interbreeding is best described as a(n): A. community B. *population C. ecosystem D. biosphere E. intron
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In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term 2pq represents the frequency of the
A. dominant homozygotes
B. recessive homozygotes
C. dominant allele
D. recessive allele
E. *heterozygotes
93. Using the Hardy-Weinberg Principle, which expression represents the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype?
A. p2
B. 2pq
C. *q2
D. q
E. pq
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